Dimensions
Final Exam
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1. True or False: Energy Systems in the body are used by both
conventional and integrative medicine.
2. Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain
power over their practice.
3. An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or
psychological injury or the risk thereof serious injury including loss of limbs
or function is:
4. What is the purpose of spiritual modes of healing?
5. True or False: QSEN or Quality of Safety Education for Nurses is
built on 8 competencies developed by the Department of Health.
6. Which best describes The Leapfrog Group and its recommendations?
7. A client’s blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg is an example of which
of the following?
8. With which of the following clients does the nurse determine to
be the most appropriate time to discuss their discharge teaching?
9. What is the definition of the ethical principle of
nonmaleficence?
10. These characteristics are difficult to identify, but have an
even more profound effect on an individual's cultural identity.
11. Which of the following is a key element to effective education
of nursing students?
12. Which of the following would NOT be considered an invasion of
privacy:
13. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the nurse
when caring for a client using complimentary medicine?
14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Integrative
medicine?
15. When reviewing the term spirituality, which of the following
would not be included in its definition?
16. This is the single most obvious barrier to providing culturally
competent care.
17. Which situation is the nurse allowed to breech a client’s right
of confidentiality?
18. Which of the following best describes conventional and
integrative medicine?
19. Which characteristic is required in a person to be able to
resolve difficult crises?
20. Where would a nurse look to find their scope of practice as
defined by state law?
21. Identify an important aspect of the role of forensic psychiatric
nurses
22.
The student nurse asks, “Why is there such an
emphasis on spirituality in health care?” Which of the following is the most appropriate
response by the nurse preceptor?
A) Each hospital establishes its own policy
regarding spirituality.
B) The American Association of Colleges of Nursing mandates a
policy related to spirituality in health care
C) The Joint Commission has a standard of
patient care with inclusion of spirituality.
D) Spirituality remains at the discretion of
the chaplain or pastoral care.
23.
What is the first step in the delegation
process?
A) Allowing the person to observe the RN
performing the task before making the assignment
B) Determining the skill level of the person
to whom the task is to be delegated
C) Obtaining permission from the client for
another care provider to help with the care
D) Instructing the person to whom the task is
delegated about the assignment
24.
What is the most important element for the
nurse navigator to include in the planning of care for a client?
A) The client’s perceptions and beliefs about
the disease process and the modalities of treatment
B) The distance the
client lives from the primary health-care facility
C) The age difference
between the client and the nurse
D) What type of insurance coverage the client
has
25.
Identify a secured setting for the practice of
forensic nursing.
A) Crime scenes
B) Women’s shelters
C) Emergency rooms
D) Correctional
institutions
26.
What would be a likely result of the
development of a universally agreed upon nomenclature and taxonomy for nursing
clinical information and management data?
A) A failure to determine the impact nurses
have on outcomes
B) The inability to identify what the nursing staff actually
does
C) The
establishment of appropriate reimbursement for nursing activities
D) A decrease in the
number of nursing diagnoses
27.
A particularly vocal staff nurse on a busy
obstetric unit has been complaining to the other nurses about the unit
manager’s preferential treatment of the night-shift nurses. Select the action
that the unit manager should take to resolve this problem, which best
demonstrates the use of the assertive approach to conflict resolution.
A) Sets up a time and place for a one-on-one
meeting with the staff nurse
B) Arranges for the transfer of the staff
nurse to the night shift
C) Waits until there is an opportunity to use the incident to
confront the staff nurse in front of his or her colleagues
D) Notes that the vocal
staff nurse is not intelligent enough to understand the situation, and
disregards her comments as worthless
28.
When do most health-care expenditures occur in
a person’s life?
A) As old age sets in due to the development
of multiple chronic illnesses
B) During the last 6 months of life
C) During childhood due
to the large number of broken bones and traumatic injuries
D) During and shortly
after being born
29.
Which assignment is most appropriate for a
CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) floated to the medical-surgical unit
from the outpatient clinic?
A) Completing the admission vital signs and
assessment on a 44-year-old woman who just returned from the post anesthesia
care unit after nephrectomy
B) Obtaining a temperature on a 29-year-old
woman with gastrointestinal bleeding during the last 30 minutes of a
whole-blood transfusion
C) Changing the sterile dressings on a 22-year-old man 2 days
after undergoing skin graft for burn injuries
D) Assisting a 72-year-old man 1 day
post–cerebrovascular accident with dysphagia to eat lunch
30.
What is the primary goal of the nurse
navigator role?
A) Lower the risk factors that cause poor or
adverse client outcomes
B) Elimination of the barriers to care to make moving through
the treatment maze easier
C) Starting a business by combining nursing experience and
knowledge with business knowledge
D) Provide health care for inmates in
correctional facilities such as juvenile centers, jails, and prisons
31.
True or False: It is estimated that 98,000
people die per year due to adverse events & medical errors in hospitals.
A) False
B) True
32.
Identify a communication style that involves
interpersonal behaviors that permit people to defend and maintain their
legitimate rights in a respectful manner that does not violate the rights of
others.
A) Aggressive
B) Assertive
C) Dishonest
D) Submissive
33.
Which nursing intervention is of limited
effectiveness in addressing the needs of a client with a nursing diagnosis of
Spiritual Distress?
A) Explain the nurse’s religious beliefs and
values immediately when requested to do so by the client.
B) Contact an appropriate
spiritual leader or community for conduct of spiritual rituals sought by the client.
C) Express a willingness
to assist and cooperate with religious practices that are not detrimental to
the client’s health in the treatment setting.
D) Communicate acceptance of the client’s
spiritual needs and acknowledge their importance.
34.
When does the encoding process of
communication take place?
A) The message is sent in a way that causes
confusion in the receiver.
B) The receiver thinks about the information,
understands it, and forms an idea based on the message.
C) The sender sends the message.
D) The receiver responds
to the message and gives feedback.
35.
Who is called the “father of modern medicine”?
A) Hippocrates
B) Emperor Darius
C) Cyrus the Great
D) William Harvey
36.
Identify the task that may be delegated to an
LPN (LVN) if all of the clients are stable.
A) Developing the nursing diagnosis for a
newly admitted client
B) Turning a client with a CVA every 2 hours
C) Teaching a new
diabetic patient how to administer insulin injections
D) Adding potassium to an
intravenous (IV) bag of D6W that was already hanging
37.
A patient is anxious about a procedure.
Knowing the patient loves the beach, the nurse instructs them to close their
eyes and picture the ocean, sand, and rays of the sun. Which of the following
practices is the nurse implementing?
A) Transcendental Meditation
B) Guided Imagery
C) Therapeutic Talking
D) Visualization
38.
Identify the primary change that increased the
need for many more certified RN-coders and certified RN-auditors.
A) The development of new oversight procedures
for Medicare and Medicaid
B) The switch to the new ICD-10 coding system
C) The new regulations
that came into effect with the Affordable Care Act
D) The closing of many
college programs that teach or offer degrees in health-care coding
39.
Identify the four concepts that are common in
most nursing theories.
A) Client, health, environment, nursing
B) Hospital, nursing
home, clinic, physician’s office
C) Nurse, physician, client, other providers
D) Care, adaptation,
system, cure
40.
Which of the following demonstrates the
planning phase of the nursing process?
A) The nurse specifies short and long term
outcomes for the client
B) The nurse determines whether or not the client’s short term
outcomes were met
C) The nurse performs a physical exam and collects a health
history
D) The
nurse identifies that the client is at risk for pressure ulcers
41.
What is the best way to increase the
motivation to learn in the elderly population?
A) Use negative reinforcements when an elderly
person does not change behavior appropriately
B) Link positive reinforcement to changes in
behavior.
C) Ignore their life experiences so that the learning is not
contaminated by misinformation from the past.
D) Use the power disparity between the teacher
and the client to reinforce basic principles
42.
Why is it important for nurses in general
practice to have an awareness of forensic knowledge?
A) They may one day wish to become certified
in forensic nursing
B) Forensic knowledge is a part of nursing curricula and is
necessary for passing the National Council Licensure Examination
C) Nurses are often in
positions to report crimes or preserve evidence.
D) With the increasing involvement of nurses
in malpractice suits, forensic knowledge will help them win their cases
43.
Why is term healing preferred to medicine when
referring to alternative and complementary modalities?
A) Clients might associate alternative
treatments with hospital care.
B) Nurses have had a strong influence in
naming this modality.
C) The treatments are based on holistic philosophies that go
beyond treatment or cure of the physiological dimensions of care.
D) Medicine implies that
only physicians can carry out the treatment
44.
An example of civility in the classroom
consists of keeping cell phones on silent and using proper cell phone
etiquette?
A) False
B) True
45.
What primary skills are required of the nurse
to provide cultural competent care?
A) All of the above
B) Sensitivity
C) Understanding
D) Communication
46.
Both nursing models and theories help explain
and direct nursing actions.
A) True
B) False
47.
Which of the following statements is most
accurate about the vast majority of the elderly?
A) They make up the single largest expenditure
for the federal government budget
B) They are relatively healthy and most manage
their chronic conditions at home
C) They all have chronic diseases and are in
assisted-care facilities.
D) They have high levels of depression and are usually in bad
spirits.
48.
Although the assessment techniques used for
different individuals may be identical, the nurse needs to know the basic
biological and physical variations among ethnic groups.
A) True
B) False
49.
The client’s short term outcome was to sit up
in a chair at bedside for 30 minutes. The nurse reviews the client outcome,
determines that it was not met, and modifies the interventions. Which phase of
the nursing process is this?
A) Evaluation
B) Assessment
C) Planning
D) Diagnosis
50.
This lengthy assessment tool provides a
thorough overview of a client’s culture.
A) Minority Model
B) Purnell’s Model
C) Non-English Model
D) Bio-Cultural Model
51.
True or False: By law, supplements are
regulated be the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
A) False
B) True
52.
Which of the following describes Callista
Roy’s definition of nursing as indicated in her nursing model?
A) Multistep process that helps the client
adapt and reach the highest level of functioning
B) Assistance in self-care activities to help
the client achieve health
C) Dynamic process that identifies and meets the client’s
health-care needs
D) Identifies boundary disruption and helps clients in
activities to restore stability.
53.
An ethical code does which of the following?
A) dictates decisions
B) provides a framework
for decision-making
C) sets firm rules
D) provides a group of legally binding values
54.
To which individual can the charge nurse
delegate the task of completing the history and physical assessment for a newly
admitted client?
A) LPN
B) CNA, level II
C) CNA, level III
D) RN
55.
A client sustained a complete C2 spinal cord
injury after a motor vehicle crash. He is unable to move bilateral upper and
lower extremities. He requires total nursing care including assistance eating,
turning, and voiding. Which of the following describes the level of care the
nurse provides according to Orem’s self-care model?
A) Partially compensated care
B) Supportive
developmental care
C) Self-care
D) Wholly compensated care
56.
Function in nursing informatics focuses on
which of the following?
A) A well-articulated theoretical basis to
guide the gathering of data
B) Areas of research that lead to new
knowledge
C) The levels of special interest, including technology and
concepts of nursing theory
D) How the management and processing of
information helps nurses enter, organize, or retrieve information
57.
Identify the best method for a nurse to
acknowledge a client’s autonomy
A) Incorporate the ethical principle of
paternalism into all client care activities
B) Follow only the instructions of the
client’s family
C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making
decisions about the client’s care needs
D) Know and understand the state’s laws that
address living wills
58.
Select the most appropriate client for the RN
to assign to the CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel).
A) A client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
tube who is receiving continuous tube feedings
B) A client with difficulty walking and
requires assistance to the bathroom
C) A client with difficulty swallowing food
and fluids
D) A client with a colostomy who requires irrigations
59.
What is best described as the concepts,
ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person’s life?
A) Laws
B) Values
C) Morals
D) Ethics
60.
Which of the following is known as a healing
practice that uses the human energy system?
A) Visualization
B) Therapeutic Touch
C) Hypnosis
D) Guided Imagery
61.
The analysis that tracks events leading to
error, identifies faulty systems and processes, and develops a plan to prevent
further error in a blame-free environment is called:
A) Quality Improvement
B) Root Cause Analysis
C) Case Management
D) Leapfrog
62.
Nurses who learn about another person's
culture is enough to guarantee the nurse will have cultural awareness.
A) False
B) True
63.
Using errors as learning opportunities is a
key element in building which of the following?
A) Magnet hospital
B) Shared decision-making
environment
C) system of improvements and quality care
D) Just culture
organization
64.
Evidence-based practice is the practice of
nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that
demonstrates they are appropriate and successful.
A) True
B) False
65.
Which of the following is considered the best
preferred strategy to dealing with conflict?
A) Choose your battles
B) Confront the conflict
C) Postpone the conflict
D) Ignore the conflict
66.
Which statement made by a nursing student
during a class on delegation indicates that the student needs additional study
of the topic?
A) “The RN who delegates is also responsible
for education about the task to be performed.”
B) “When nurses delegate, they are delegating
nursing.”
C) “Assessing clients is a task of the RN.”
D) “The tasks delegated
should have expected and predictable outcomes.”
67.
Which statement by a nurse manager during a
staff meeting best demonstrates use of an assertive style of communication?
A) “I am the manager and we will do it my
way.”
B) “You
have made some good points, but I have another suggestion.”
C) “I’m sorry, but your
suggestion was useless to solving the problem.”
D) “I really don’t care; do it the way you
think is best.”
68.
A physician writes a DNR order for a competent
client. Which individual may give permission for this order?
A) The client’s next of kin
B) The client
C) The client’s spouse
D) The client’s only
child
69.
A client asks what the Affordable Care Act is.
What best explains this act?
A) “The law requires that most of the assets
be absorbed.”
B) “The law is only for those on Medicare Part D.”
C) “The law has been
written for those seniors who are under Medicaid.”
D) “The law has been
written for those of all ages for a positive outcome.”
70.
Clients may develop this when they view that
the nurse is an authority figure or expert in health-care matters.
A) Passive Obedience
B) Active Obedience
C) Health Care Aversion
D) Communication Synergy
71.
Which is the principle upon which
Nightingale’s spirituality was based?
A) Scientific rationalism
B) A sense of a divine
intelligence who creates and sustains the cosmos as well as an awareness of her
own inner connection with this higher reality
C) Adherence to a set of rules of behavior,
the participation in prescribed rituals, prayer, and the study of sacred texts
D) The beliefs of her
Unitarian and Anglican parents
72.
Client Satisfaction is not another way to
measure quality of care.
A) False
B) True
73.
What is one disadvantage to the electronic
health care system that health care workers are concerned about?
A) Computer glitches
B) Inexpensive computer
systems
C)
Improved communication
D) May be used by multiple users at one time
74.
Which is not part of the role of the forensic
correctional nurse?
A) Provide health screenings
B) Respond to emergency
situations
C) Prescribe medications
D) Develop health-care plans
75.
The nurse identifies a problem list for the
client. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is this a part of?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Evaluation
D) Planning
76.
What is the federally funded national health
insurance program in the United States for people older than 65 years?
A) Medicare
B) Exclusive Provider Organization
C) Long-term care
insurance
D) Medicaid
77.
T.S is a 75 year old man who sustained a left
hip fracture after a fall. He is normally independent and lives at home with
his wife who suffers from dementia. He currently requires a heavy assist of 2
to pivot transfer to a chair. He is not currently ambulating more than a few
steps with a walker. His goal is to go back home to help care for his wife.
Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital discharge plan for
T.S.?
A) Rehabilitation Center
B) Long-term care
facility
C) Home with homecare
D) Assisted living
78.
What is the primary reason some nurses have
difficulty in their role of managing the needs of the elderly or dying client?
A) Death of a client may indicate that the
care they were providing was insufficient
B) Their education has focused them on keeping
clients alive and promoting health.
C) They have an internal conflict in coping
with their own fears of death.
D) They become very emotional when clients
they are caring for die.
79.
What is the most effective method nurses can
use to gain power over nursing practice?
A) Confront hospital administrators about
inadequate staffing
B) Leave the nursing profession when better jobs are available
C) Join professional
organizations in large numbers
D) Use union tactics to increase salaries
80.
The establishment of a professional
organization is one of the most important defining characteristics of a
profession.
A) False
B) True
81.
Why is heritage consistency important to
cultural groups?
A) It allows them to advance within the larger
culture
B) It
allows them to retain many of their cultural elements
C) It allows them to fit
in with the larger culture
D) All of the above
82.
Identify the term used when a person lives
with consciousness of a reality beyond what is knowable through the five senses
and is aware of a transcendent reality.
A) Religion
B) Spirituality
C) Truth
D) Meditation
83.
True or False: Total quality improvement is
based upon the organization with the higher-quality service that will capture a
greater share of the market than competitors with lower-quality services.
A) False
B) True
84.
Which of the following is not a reason the
State Board of Nursing may revoke a nursing license?
A) Conviction of a serious crime
B) Ethical conduct in the
practice of nursing
C) Use of illegal drugs while providing client care
D) Failure to renew a
nursing license while still practicing nursing
85.
What would be a characteristic of the ideal
electronic health care record?
A) The system is unique to the institution it
resides in.
B) It reflects only the past medical history.
C) The system reflects
the lifelong, continuous record of all care the client has received.
D) It depicts the current
health status, but does not provide the medical history
86.
The type of reimbursement system that pays a
fixed-rate based on diagnosis (or DRG) is called what:
A) Capitated Payment System
B) Managed Care
Organization
C) Preferred Provider Organization
D) Prospective Payment System
87.
Which of the following organizations provides
nursing with a code of ethics?
A) Institute of Medicine
B) Department of Health
C) Board of Nursing
D) American Nurses
Association
88.
Which of the following reasons is not a reason
for the increasing use of alternative and complementary healing practices?
A) Desire for greater control over one’s
health
B)
Traditions passed on from parents
C) Belief in the effectiveness of alternative
therapies
D) Dissatisfaction with conventional health care
89.
Identify the primary driving force behind the
development and use of telehealth or telemedicine.
A) Easy access to computers
B) Consumer concerns
about access to health care
C) Increase sophistication of physicians’
computers skills
D) Large segments of the population located in congested urban
areas
90.
The establishment of a professional
organization is insignificant in defining characteristics of a profession.
A) True
B) False
91.
A registered nurse (RN) is assigned to a
step-down coronary care unit with 20 clients in various stages of recovery.
What is the primary consideration in assigning the unit staff that includes two
RNs, two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one certified nursing assistant
(CNA) or UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) ?
A) Skill level of each staff member
B) Staff preferences for
specific clients
C) Distance of client rooms from the nurses’ station
D) Developmental needs of
clients
92.
What is acute care of sick persons that is
provided in hospitals called?
A) Primary intervention
B) Assistive intervention
C) Secondary intervention
D) Tertiary intervention
93.
Identify the characteristics of a task that is
to be delegated that would require it to be assigned to an RN.
A) The task is routine in nature and follows
hospital policies.
B) The client is relatively stable.
C) The client requires a
dressing change at the beginning of the shift.
D) The task requires decision-making to
complete it.
94.
Evidence-based practice is the practice of
nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that
demonstrates that they are appropriate and successful.
A) True
B) False
95.
Identify the health-care area in which the use
of computers has improved the efficiency of care.
A) Physician record keeping
B) Interdepartmental
communication
C) Documentation
D) Medication administration
96.
What is a major benefit for the elderly who
now have easy access to and use of technology such as the Internet and
smartphones?
A) They can reach hospitals and family if they
need help.
B) They generally are so confused by the technology, they
abandon it.
C) They have opportunities to obtain screening and treatment
that they might not otherwise seek.
D) They now have a new source of entertainment
to keep their minds active and delay the effects of dementia.
97.
This federally funded program is known for
financing a large portion of maternal and child care for the poor.
A) Medicaid
B) Medicare
C) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
D) Exclusive Provider
Organization (EPO)
98.
What is the primary purpose for the
development of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?
A) Focus nursing education on competencies to
reduce the number of medical errors
B) Increase the number of students in nursing
programs
C) Shift nursing education to a more medical model due to
increased client acuity
D) Decrease the number of associate degree nursing programs
99.
Which behavior indicates that a nurse, who is
forced to confront a conflict situation, is using a submissive approach to
communication?
A) Refers the problem to a supervisor
B) Confronts the other
person loudly and in front of an audience
C) Uses the incident as a threat
D) Sets up a one-on-one
meeting at a specific time
100.
What advantage does the electronic health
recor
DimensionsQuiz 1 STUDY GUIDE
Chapters 1, 2, 4, 5, 14,&17
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Chapter 1
Define evidence-based
practice
Review difference
between roles: position, job, occupation, profession, professional, and what professionalism
is
Identify the traits
that define a profession
Review how nursing
compares with other professions
Review how students
should use recourses like websites, journals
Review Nurses’ Code of
Ethics
Do nurses have
autonomy and independence of practice? Why or why not.
Determine the main
method in which nurses can gain power in nursing
Chapter 2
Compare healthcare of ancient civilizations
to healthcare today.
Howhas the focus, influences, and
interventions changed?
Understand the influence of Hippocrates.
How did he change medicine? How are his teachings relevant today?
Understand the influences of nursing
through the centuries:
Religion-
Review the symbols of nursing and what they
stood for: lamp, cap, pin
Review the following individuals for their
history and contribution to nursing: Nightingale, Robb, Ford, and Wald
Chapter 4
Review the types of
nursing education programs and the length of the programs
Review the primary
purpose of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?
Review the history of
nursing education in the United States such as 1800s-1900s
Review the
characteristics and differences between the nursing education programs (LPN,
LVN and RN)
Review the three types
of advanced nursing degrees (NP, CNS, etc.) and review which one is widely
accepted by the public
Review higher
education programs (BSN, MSN, and Doctorate programs). Know the key
requirements for entry into these programs
Review the role and
duties of a nurse in a case manager position
Review the importance
of a therapeutic relationship between nurse and client and the significance and
elements of relationship-centered nursing
Chapter 5
Review the following
terms and be able to apply them:
Identify why establishing a
professional organization defines the nursing profession.
Understand the reasons your state
board may revoke a nursing license.
Identify the goals behind
establishing the licensure of nurses.
Understand what the National League
for Nurses does and what are the goals?
Understand the reasoning behind
licensure; for example, who it is through and who is protected?
Chapter 14
Understand the health
care levels and the various settings of services:
What are the
responsibilities of nurses who work in Physicians’ Offices and General Clinics
compared to other settings such as in hospitals, long term care facilities, so
forth….?
Explain Prospective
Payment System:
Define Medicare:
How do DRGs and
Medicare relate to one another?
What is the difference
between Palliative Care versus Hospice Care?
What is the main goal
of the ACA?
Differ between Type 1
Health Care Systems compared to Type 4 Health Care Systems:
List the various
Health Care Settings
Chapter 17
Define civility and incivility.
Where can civility and incivility
occur?
What factors contribute to
incivility?
What measures can be taken to
minimize incivility on student learning?
Interpersonal relationships, what
are they, where do they occur?
Define and understand Horizontal
Violence?
Define and understand bullying?
d system have over traditional paper systems?
A) More portable
B) Fewer privacy issues
C) Unbreakable
D) Reduces redundancy
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