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ACCT 555 Week 1 Homework
Chapter 2, pages 41–44:
Problems 2-16, 2-17, 2-19, and 2-20
Chapter 3, pages 67–69:
Problems 3-23, 3-25, and 3-26
ACCT 555 Week 2 Homework
4-18, 4-21, 4-22, 5-17, 5-19, 5-21, 5-26, 11-19, 11-20
ACCT 555 Week 3 Homework Assignment
Week 3 Homework
6-19 (Objective 6-1) The following questions concern the reasons
auditors do audits. Choose the best response.
a. Which of the following best
describes the reason why an independent auditor reports on financial
statements?
b. Because of the risk of
material misstatement, an audit should be planned and performed with an
attitude of
c. The major reason an
independent auditor gathers audit evidence is to
6-20 (Objective 6-3) The following questions deal with errors and
fraud. Choose the best response.
a. An independent auditor has
the responsibility to design the audit to provide reasonable assurance of
detecting errors and fraud that might have a material effect on the financial
statements. Which of the following, if material, is a fraud as defined in
auditing standards?
b. What assurance does the auditor
provide that errors, fraud, and direct-effect illegal acts that are material to
the financial statements will be detected?
6-27 (Objectives 6-6, 6-7) The following are specific transaction-related
audit objectives applied to the audit of cash disbursement transactions (a
through f), management assertions about classes of transactions (1 through 5),
and general transaction-related audit objectives (6 through 11).
Specific Transaction-Related
Audit Objective
a. Recorded cash
disbursement transactions are for the amount of goods or services received and
are correctly recorded.
7-25 (Objectives 7-3, 7-4) The following questions concern persuasiveness
of evidence. Choose the best response.
a. Which of the following types
of documentary evidence should the auditor consider to be the most reliable?
b. Which of the following
statements concerning audit evidence is true?
c. Audit evidence can come in
different forms with different degrees of persuasiveness. Which of the
following is the least persuasive type of evidence?
d. Which of the following
presumptions is correct about the reliability of audit evidence?
7-26 (Objectives 7-5, 7-6) The following questions concern audit
documentation. Choose the best response.
a. Which of the following is not a primary purpose of audit documentation?
b. During an audit engagement,
pertinent data are compiled and included in the audit files. The audit files
primarily are considered to be
c. Although the quantity, type,
and content of audit documentation will vary with the circumstances, audit
documentation generally will include the
d. The permanent file of an
auditor’s working papers most likely would include copies of the
7-27 (Objective 7-4) The following are examples of documentation
typically obtained by auditors:
7-28 (Objective 7-4) The following are examples of audit
procedures:
8-25 (Objectives 8-1, 8-3) The following questions concern the planning
of the engagement. Select the best response.
a. Which of the following is an
effective audit planning procedure that helps prevent misunderstandings and
inefficient use of audit personnel?
8-28 (Objectives 8-2, 8-3, 8-4,
8-5) The
following are various activities an auditor does during audit planning.
ACCT 555 Week 4 Homework Assignment
9-22 (Objectives 9-1, 9-2) The following questions deal with materiality. Choose the best
response.
9-23 (Objectives 9-6, 9-8) The following questions concern audit risk. Choose the best
response.
·
a. Some account balances, such as those for pensions and leases,
are the result of complex calculations. The susceptibility to material
misstatements in these types of accounts is defined as
9-24 (Objective 9-9) The
following questions deal with audit risk and evidence. Choose the best
response.
10-30 (Objectives 10-1, 10-2, 10-7) The following are general questions about internal control.
Choose the best response.
·
a. When considering internal control, an auditor must be aware
of the concept of reasonable assurance, which recognizes that the
ACCT 555 Week 5 Homework Assignment
Chapter 12, pages 390–397:
Problems 12-17, 12-18, and 12-27
Chapter 13, pages
429–430: Problems 13-22, 13-23, and 13-24
ACCT 555 Week 6 Homework
Chapter
14 . Problems 14-21, 14-22, 14-23 14-24,
Chapter 15 Problems
15-22, 15-24, 15-25,
Chapter 16- Problem 220,21,22,24,28
Chapter 17 Problem 28
ACCT 555 Week 7 Homework Assignment
20-17
a.A factory foreman at Steblecki Corporation discharged an
hourly worker but did not notify the human resources department. The foreman
then forged the worker’s signature on time cards and work tickets and, when
giving out the checks, diverted the payroll checks drawn from the discharged
worker to his own use. The most effective procedure for preventing this
activity is to
b. An auditor found that employee time records in one
department are not properly approved by the supervisor. Which of the following
could result?
c. The purpose of segregating the duties of hiring
personnel and distributing payroll checks is to separate the
20-20
·
a. Identify whether each
of the procedures is primarily a test of control or a substantive test of
transactions.
·
b. Identify the
transaction-related audit objective(s) of each of the procedures.
21-17
Which of the following controls will most likely justify a
reduced assessed level of control risk for the occurrence assertion for
purchases of inventory?
21-18
When an auditor tests a client’s cost accounting records, the
auditor’s tests are primarily designed to determine that
21-19
Which of the following procedures is the auditor least likely to
perform on the actual date the physical inventory count is observed?
21-20
·
a. For each of the
preceding questions, state the purpose of the internal control.
·
b. For each internal
control, list a test of control to test its effectiveness.
·
c. For each of the
preceding questions, identify the nature of the potential financial
misstatement(s) if the control is not in effect.
d. For each of the potential misstatements in part c, list a
substantive audit procedure to determine whether a material misstatement exists
ACCT 555 Course Project
ACCT 555 Week 7 Course
Project Smackey Dog Foods Inc
ACCT 555 Midterm
1. (TCO F) Which of the
following procedures should an auditor generally perform regarding subsequent
events?
2. (TCO A) An auditor
reads the letter of transmittal accompanying a county's comprehensive annual
financial report and identifies a material inconsistency with the financial
statements. The auditor determines that the financial statements do not require
revision. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?
3. (TCO F) An auditor's
independence is considered impaired if the auditor has
4. (TCO B) When an
independent CPA is associated with the financial statements of a publicly held
entity but has not audited or reviewed such statements, the appropriate form of
report to be issued must include a(an):
5. (TCO F) Which is not a
characteristic of the reliability of evidence?
6. (TCO C) According to
PCAOB standards, the nature and extent of required planning activities for an
issuer audit are influenced by all of the following factors, except for:
7. (TCO F) Analytical
procedures must be used during which phase(s) of the audit?
Test of controls OR
planning OR completion
8. (TCO F) In a financial
statement audit, inherent risk is evaluated to help an auditor assess which of
the following?
9. (TCO F) The primary
purpose of performing analytical procedures in the planning phase of an audit
is to
10. (TCO G) The most
widely used profitability ratio is
11. (TCO G) Which ratio
is best used to assess a company's ability to meet its long-term debt
obligations?
1. (TCO A) Match the
following definitions to the appropriate terms.
2. (TCO B) The following
is a portion of a qualified audit report issued for a private company.
To the shareholders of Tamarak Corporation,
We have audited the accompanying balance sheet of Tamarak Corporation as of October 31, 2009, and the related statements of income, retained earnings, and cash flows for the past year. These financial statements are the responsibility of the company's management. Our responsibility is to express an opinion on these financial statements based on our audit.
We conducted our audit in accordance with auditing standards generally accepted in the United States of America. Those standards require that we plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement. An audit includes examining, on a test basis, evidence supporting the amounts and disclosures in the financial statements. An audit also includes assessing the accounting principles used and significant estimates made by management, as well as evaluating the overall financial statement presentation. We believe that our audit provides a reasonable basis for our opinion.
The company has included in property and debt in the accompanying balance sheet certain lease obligations that, in our opinion, should be expensed in order to conform with generally accepted accounting principles. If these lease obligations were capitalized, property would be decreased by $4,000,000, long-term debt by $2,000,000, and retained earnings by $180,000 as of October 31, 2009, and net income and earnings per share would be decreased by $180,000 and $0.62, respectively, for the past year.
3. (TCO C) The following
situation involves a possible violation of the AICPA's code of professional
conduct. For this situation, (1) determine the applicable rule number from the
code, (2) decide whether or not the code has been violated, and (3) briefly
explain how the situation violates (or does not violate) the code. Your answer
should be set up something like this:
Rule # _____ Violation? Yes or No.
Provide a one- or two-line explanation.
Auditor Tex Gato of the CPA firm Smackey and Smackey, CPAs, enjoyed auditing his favorite client, Super Pup Dog Food, because the client would allow him to take home to his dog a variety of dog food samples that amounted to a year's worth of dog food.
4. (TCO C) The following
situation involves a possible violation of the AICPA's code of professional
conduct. For this situation, (1) determine the applicable rule number from the
code, (2) decide whether or not the code has been violated, and (3) briefly
explain how the situation violates (or does not violate) the code. Your answer
should be set up something like this:
Rule # _____ Violation? Yes or No.
Provide a one- or two-line explanation.
Howard Cunningham & Co., CPAs, designates its firm as Members of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants. All of the partners of the firm are CPAs. However, one of the partners has recently chosen to allow her membership to lapse because of personal reasons.
5. (TCO C) Under the
provisions of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX), the audit committee of a
public company has specific guidelines to which employees must adhere. Discuss
some of the mandated features of the audit committee of a public company under
SOX.
6. (TCO D) Discuss some
of the steps the AICPA and the accounting profession as a whole can and are
taking to reduce practitioners' exposure to lawsuits. You answer should provide
at least five steps.
7. (TCO F) Match nine of
the terms (A–K) with the definitions provided below (1–9).
A - Foot
B - Compute
C - Scan
D - Inquire
E - Count
F - Trace
G - Recompute
H - Read
I - Examine
J - Observe
K - Compare
_____ 1: A calculation done by the auditor independent of the client
_____ 2: Addition of a column of numbers to determine if the total is the same as the client's
_____ 3: A comparison of information in two different locations
_____ 4: A use of the senses to assess certain activities
_____ 5: Following details of transactions from original documents to journals
_____ 6: A less detailed examination of a document or record to determine if there is something unusual warranting further investigation
_____ 7: Obtaining information from the client in response to specific questions
_____ 8: A determination of assets on hand at a given time
_____ 9: An examination of written information to determine facts pertinent to the audit
B - Compute
C - Scan
D - Inquire
E - Count
F - Trace
G - Recompute
H - Read
I - Examine
J - Observe
K - Compare
_____ 1: A calculation done by the auditor independent of the client
_____ 2: Addition of a column of numbers to determine if the total is the same as the client's
_____ 3: A comparison of information in two different locations
_____ 4: A use of the senses to assess certain activities
_____ 5: Following details of transactions from original documents to journals
_____ 6: A less detailed examination of a document or record to determine if there is something unusual warranting further investigation
_____ 7: Obtaining information from the client in response to specific questions
_____ 8: A determination of assets on hand at a given time
_____ 9: An examination of written information to determine facts pertinent to the audit
8. (TCO G) Discuss the
essential activities involved in the initial planning of an audit.
ACCT 555 Final Exam
1. (TCO B) An auditor was unable to obtain
sufficient appropriate audit evidence concerning certain transactions due to an
inadequacy in the entity's accounting records. The auditor would choose between
issuing a(an): (Points : 5)
2. (TCO K) An auditor should consider which of
the following when evaluating the ability of a company to continue as a going
concern? (Points : 5)
3. (TCO A) An auditor's independence is
considered impaired if the auditor has: (Points : 5)
4. (TCO H) Which of the following should be
included as a written representation from management? (Points : 5)
5. (TCO E) An auditor would
most likely be concerned with internal controls that provide reasonable
assurance about the: (Points : 5)
Page 2
1.(TCO A) In performing an ATTEST Engagement A
CPA would be required to do what as part of the engagement? (Points : 19)
2.(TCO B) When a CPA performs
an Audit the Client is always looking to receive a “CLEAN OPINION” or an
Unqualified Opinion. Explain what your client must do for a CPA to justify that
Unqualified Opinion? (Points : 19)
3.(TCO C) – Based upon the
below 4 situations – explain your position of “why” or “why not” the following
circumstances would have violated the professions ethical standards when you
are a practicing CPA?
4.(TCO D) Discuss five steps
individual practicing auditors can take to minimize their legal
liability.(Points : 19)
5.(TCO F) Sarbanes Oxley
requires that per Section 404 that Internal Controls within a publicly held
company are to be reviewed, evaluated and tested at year end to insure that
adequate controls are in place. In addition to understanding the Internal
Controls present within your client’s company, the auditor must also evaluate
whether these controls are in place, and implemented. How does an auditor
evaluate these controls to see that they are working and in place?(Points : 19)
Page 3
1. (TCO E) What is COSO? Describe the 5 elements
of COSO’s Internal Control-Integrated Framework. Provide an example of each of
those components and explain why they are important in providing “Reliable
Financial Reporting” for a company. Please provide a complete answer for full
points. (Points : 30)
2.(TCO G) Business risk must be
assessed in performing an audit.
(a) Define business risk in association with an audit and describe several sources of such risk.
(b) How does business risk relate to the performance of preliminary analytical procedures in an audit?
(c) There are four major areas in planning an audit engagement and there are subparts to each of the four major areas. Please identify the four major areas and the subparts that are associated with the major areas.(Points : 30)
(a) Define business risk in association with an audit and describe several sources of such risk.
(b) How does business risk relate to the performance of preliminary analytical procedures in an audit?
(c) There are four major areas in planning an audit engagement and there are subparts to each of the four major areas. Please identify the four major areas and the subparts that are associated with the major areas.(Points : 30)
3.(TCO H) Audit Risk consists
of inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk.
(a) Please completely define each of the above.
(b) Indicate whether each of the statements below is true or false and explain your position:
(1) The risk that material misstatement will not be prevented or detected on a timely basis by internal controls can be reduced to zero by having effective controls in place.
(2) Detection Risk is a function of the efficiency of an auditing procedure.
(3) Cash is more susceptible to theft than an inventory of coal because it has greater inherent risk?
(4) The Inherent risk of the theft of an inventory of cellphones at a mall store is greater than the misappropriation of cash at a COSTCO Store?(Points : 30)
(a) Please completely define each of the above.
(b) Indicate whether each of the statements below is true or false and explain your position:
(1) The risk that material misstatement will not be prevented or detected on a timely basis by internal controls can be reduced to zero by having effective controls in place.
(2) Detection Risk is a function of the efficiency of an auditing procedure.
(3) Cash is more susceptible to theft than an inventory of coal because it has greater inherent risk?
(4) The Inherent risk of the theft of an inventory of cellphones at a mall store is greater than the misappropriation of cash at a COSTCO Store?(Points : 30)
4.(TCO I) Accounts Receivable -
For each of the following, please explain if an auditor’s review of the
client’s sales cutoff would detect these problems:
(a) Would excessive goods returned for credit be detected by a sales cut-off test – why or why not?
(b) Would unrecorded sales discounts be detected by a sales cut-off test – why or why not?
(c) Lapping of year-end accounts receivable be detected by a sales cut-off test – why or why not?
(d) Inflated sales for the year – could it be detected by a sales-cut-off test – why or why not?(Points : 30)
(a) Would excessive goods returned for credit be detected by a sales cut-off test – why or why not?
(b) Would unrecorded sales discounts be detected by a sales cut-off test – why or why not?
(c) Lapping of year-end accounts receivable be detected by a sales cut-off test – why or why not?
(d) Inflated sales for the year – could it be detected by a sales-cut-off test – why or why not?(Points : 30)
5.(TCO J) One of the major
problems in a computer system is that incompatible functions may be performed
by the same individual. Identify from the below choices the control
compensating for inadequate segregation of duties in a computer system. Explain
why you have selected your response.
(a) Echo Checks
(b) A check digit system
(c) Computer-Generated hash totals
(d) A computer access log (Points : 30)
(a) Echo Checks
(b) A check digit system
(c) Computer-Generated hash totals
(d) A computer access log (Points : 30)
6.(TCO K) You are the Senior
Auditor for WWZ Co. and you have completed the testing of all the accounts.
However, prior to issuing your report, what are at least five other procedures
or reviews that must be performed prior to issuing your report? Explain your
responses(Points : 30)
ACCT 555 Week 8 Final Exam
1. (TCO A) There are ten
generally accepted auditing standards, divided into three categories. What are
the standards of reporting?
2. (TCO A) Distinguish
between generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS) and generally accepted
accounting principles (GAAP). What professional organization establishes GAAS?
What professional organization establishes GAAP?
3. Assume you are the
partner in charge of the audit of Franklin Corporation's 2002 financial
statements. The audit report has not yet been prepared. In each independent
situation following, indicate the appropriate opinion you should issue and why
you would issue that opinion
4. State whether there is
any violation of the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct, and the nature of the
violation. Where there is a violation, evaluate the potential legal liability
the accountant may face. Justify your position
5. Discuss at least five
of the actions that can be taken by individual CPAs, to protect themselves from
legal liability
6. (TCO E) Bobby Thigpen,
waiter at Relief Stop, has been taking cash from the restaurant. Thigpen
prepares a customer's check from which the customer pays. Thigpen then destroys
the check, and prepares a new one with different items of lower cost. He
presents the new check and indicated amount on the check to the cashier, and
saves the excess cash for himself. Question: Formulate three internal control
features that the restaurant could implement, to eliminate this defalcation
7. Three types of legal
documents and records that auditors examine in the planning phase of an audit
are the corporate charter and bylaws, corporate minutes of meetings of the
board of directors and stockholders, and contracts. Discuss the audit-relevant
information contained in each of these three types of documents that an auditor
should be aware of early in the audit.
1. (TCO F) What are
specific audit objectives? Explain their relationship to the general audit
objectives. (Points: 25)
2.(TCO H) Explain why it is necessary to
allocate the preliminary judgment about materiality to individual accounts
(segments) in the financial statements. Also explain why allocating to balance
sheet accounts is more common than allocating to income statement accounts.
(Points: 25)
Allocating the
preliminary judgment about materiality to individual segments is necessary
because evidence is accumulated for segments rather than for the financial
statements as a whole. Allocating to segments establishes a tolerable
misstatement amount for each segment, which helps the auditor decide the
appropriate audit evidence to accumulate for each segment. Most practitioners
allocate materiality to balance sheet accounts rather than income statement
accounts because there are fewer balance sheet than income statement accounts
3. (TCO I) For each of
the following potential misstatements, provide one potential audit test that
could be used to detect the misstatement
4. (TCO I) Describe how
the auditor tests the classification objective for accounts receivable.
(Points: 25)
The classification
objective is tested by reviewing the aged trial balance for material
receivables from affiliates, officers, directors, or other related parties. If
notes receivable or accounts that should not be classified as a current asset
are included with the regular accounts, these should also be segregated.
Finally, if credit balances in accounts receivable are significant, it is
appropriate to reclassify them as accounts payable
5. The design of tests of
details of balances for inventory is affected by audit results from multiple
cycles. Identify the cycles, other than the inventory and warehousing cycle,
that affect the audit of inventory
6. Describe three
computer auditing techniques available to the auditor
7. (TCO K) Match seven of
the terms (a-p) with the description/definitions provided below (1-7):
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